The "WORD" of God

by Arnold Gordon

There is no other word misrepresented in Christianity as much as the word, "WORD". The greatest perversion of the use of this word is in the understanding of the text of John 1:1. The use of the word, "WORD" in John 1:1 is translated from the Greek word "LOGOS" which has its root in the Greek word "LEGO". The only correct Biblical interpretation for the use of this word in John 1:1 is the spoken utterance emanating from "God, the almighty energy force of power", or the "utterance of God's power".

An objective study of the application of "WORD" as used in the complete passage of John chapter 1 will readily uncover this misuse for all to see. If a person would view "WORD" in John 1 as the "spoken utterance of God's power", they would readily see its true meaning as it was intended by John.

"Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;" Isaiah 44:24

If we are to believe the "LORD GOD ALMIGHTY", we must conclude He created the heaven and the earth all by himself with his "spoken WORD". God said he created all things by himself and was all alone.

The personal pronouns used to refer to the "Word", in John 1, are incorrect usage. Tyndale's Bible translated these pronouns as "it", not giving personal meaning, but referencing the "WORD". The "WORD" is a process of power, not a person or being. The Tyndale Bible was translated earlier than today's commonly used Bibles, including the King James Version.

"All things were made by him; (Word) and without him (Word) was not any thing made that was made. In him (Word) was life; and the life was the light of men...That was the true light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world." John 1:3-9 This passage corresponds to Isaiah 44:24 above. Thus reiterating that God created all things and gave life to all men by His "spoken Word of power". Remember God's own words, that "he did it all by himself and alone".

The above passages prove beyond a shadow of a doubt that the word, "WORD" as used in John 1:1 is in fact the spoken word of God's creative power, and not Jesus,the son of the virgin Mary in any context,as many have been led to believe. It was God's spoken word that was with God and was God.

The word, "made", as used in verse 3 was translated from the same Greek word, "ginomai" as was the word "made", in verse 14. The correct meaning for "ginomai" is: "came into being", according to "The Englishman's Greek New Testament" from the Greek text of Stephens 1550. The correct translation from the Greek grammar as used in verse 14 should read like this, "And the word, flesh came into being, and tabernacled among us, and we discerned his glory as of the only begotten with a father full of grace and truth". John 1:14

It is thus proven, the incorrect translation of "ginomai", used different English words in verse 3 and 14. It should have been, "came into being", both in verse 3 as well as in verse 14, according to, "The Englishman's Greek New Testament", from the Greek text of Stephens 1550.

In the King James Version Bible, According to Strong's Concordance, the Greek definition #1096 for ginomai: "verb; to cause to be ('gen'-erate), i.e. (reflex) to become (come into being), used with great latitude (lit, fig, intens., etc.):"

the correct choice of English wording for verse 3 and 14 should have been: "Came into being".

The choice of the words used in the "Englishman's Greek New Testament" stating, "And the Word, flesh came into being, and tabernacled among us," better depicts the "indwelling Spirit or Word of God", that entered into the body of Jesus Christ, and remained there, independent of the spirit and person of Jesus. The "Word" tabernacled among us in the body of Jesus, which was the "temple" of the Holy Ghost (Word). The "Word", which was God, now resided in the body of the son of the virgin Mary. Jesus was now, "God in man"! The "deity" of God was in him!

The Biblical definition of verse 14 is plainly given by Paul in I Timothy 3:16 and reads as follows: "And without controversy great is the mystery of Godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory." This is the correct interpretation of John 1:14.

The correct translation of John 1:14 must agree with II Corinthians 5:19 which reads, "To wit, that God was IN Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation."

John 1:14 must also agree with Colossians 2:8-9 which states: "Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ. For IN him dwelleth all the fullness of the Godhead bodily." This is the only "deity" of Jesus Christ!

The question here, is, which scripture translations are correct? Do all scriptures agree or not? Apostle Paul wrote, "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: that the man of God may be thoroughly furnished unto all good works." II Timothy 3:16-17

In light of Paul's admonition in II Timothy 3:16-17, Is John 1:14 correctly interpreted to mean that the "WORD" turned into the flesh human being of the son of the virgin Mary, correct? or do the scriptures of II Corinthians 5:19 and the scripture, Colossians 2:8-9 have the correct wording? What about John 14:10, where Jesus Christ said, "Believest thou not that I am in the Father and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works." As written, they are in direct disagreement with the generally accepted interpretation of John 1:14. Is it possible, II Timothy 3:16-17 is not correct? Where do we draw the line? Which scriptures do we reject to support a preconceived premise, or doctrine?

If the reader would read the scriptures in light of this truth, the "Godhead" would make sense, and the doctrine of the "Trinity" would vanish away. Instead, many start with the false premise that Jesus, in some substance or another, was in the beginning, with God, and turned into the flesh body or was incarnated in the son of the virgin Mary, thus becoming God. This is a false doctrine that is not supported by the original manuscripts nor the Old Testament as we have observed above.

Jesus, the son of the virgin Mary, was not, and is not, God, an incorporeal entity. The "incorporeal entity God" was in the "corporeal human entity, Jesus", the son of the virgin Mary. Thus saith the Holy Scriptures of the Holy Bible!

Why do the proclaimers of Christianity refuse to accept this truth, which agrees with both the spirit and the letter of the written word of the Holy Bible?

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